Questions 123456789101112131415161718192021222324252627282930313233343536373839404142434445464748495051525354555657585960616263646566676869707172737475767778798081828384858687888990919293949596979899100 0% KPSC KAS Prelims Dec 2024 – Paper 1 1 / 100 Q1. Consider the following statements related to Madam Bhikaji Cama: A. She is known as the 'Mother of Indian Revolution'. B. In 1907, she addressed the delegates at International Women's Congress and unfolded the Indian Tricolour Flag with Vande Mataram written on the middle. C. She founded the 'London Indian Society', in 1905. How many statement/statements is/are correct? Only 1 statement is correct Only 2 statements are correct Only 3 statements are correct None of the statements are correct Correct answer: Only 1 statement is correct. Explanation: Statement A is correct (she is widely known as the Mother of Indian Revolution). Statement B is incorrect because she unfurled the flag at the International Socialist Congress at Stuttgart, Germany in 1907, not the International Women's Congress. Statement C is incorrect because the London Indian Society was founded by Dadabhai Naoroji and W.C. Bonnerjee in 1865. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 2 / 100 Q2. With reference to Indian History, Morley-Minto reforms 1909 resulted in: A. Reforms promoted establishment of self-government in future. B. It increased the number of seats to provincial and imperial council. C. Introduced separate electorate. D. One Indian in Viceroy's executive council was appointed. How many statement/statements is/are correct? Only 1 statement is correct Only 2 statements are correct Only 3 statements are correct All 4 statements are correct Correct answer: Only 3 statements are correct. Explanation: Statements B, C, and D are correct (Satyendra Prasanna Sinha became the first Indian member of the Viceroy's Executive Council, separate electorates were granted to Muslims, and legislative council memberships were expanded). Statement A is incorrect because the British explicitly clarified that the 1909 reforms were never intended to introduce parliamentary self-government. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 3 / 100 Q3. Select the incorrect statement about Lahore Resolution. It was adopted by the All-India Muslim League in March 1940. Resolution stated that the areas in which the Muslims are numerically in a majority as in the North Western and Eastern Zones of (British) India should be grouped to constitute 'Independent States'. The resolution does not include the word 'Pakistan' anywhere. None of the statements are incorrect. Correct answer: None of the statements are incorrect.. Explanation: All three statements (1, 2, and 3) are historically accurate regarding the historic Lahore Resolution passed on March 23, 1940; hence, none of the statements are incorrect. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 4 / 100 Q4. Consider the following statements with reference to Mina Bazar: 1. Humayun was the first Mughal emperor to introduce it. 2. Akbar exalted such days of festival as Khush Ruz. 3. Shahjahan arranged such bazar on the occasion of every festival. 4. It invariably followed the Nauroz celebration. Which of the above statements are correct? 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only All of the above Correct answer: 1 and 2 only. Explanation: As per the official KPSC answer key, statements 1 and 2 are considered correct (Humayun initiated the bazaar concept and Akbar celebrated it as Khush Ruz). Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 5 / 100 Q5. Which of the following statements are correct in relation to Shivaji? 1. Dadaji Kondadev was the guardian of Shivaji. 2. Shivaji conquered Javli in 1656. 3. Shivaji conquered Javli from Maloji Bhosale. 4. Shivaji was the only son of Shahaji. Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1 and 2 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 only 3 and 4 only Correct answer: 1 and 2 only. Explanation: Dadaji Kondadev served as Shivaji's guardian/mentor, and Shivaji captured the strategically vital valley of Javli in 1656 from Chandra Rao More (not Maloji Bhosale). Furthermore, Sambhaji was Shivaji's elder brother, so Shivaji was not Shahaji's only son. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 6 / 100 Q6. Consider the following statements about Indian Statutory Commission: A. The Commission was appointed in 1927 to review the Government of India Act 1919 and propose constitutional reforms for India. B. The Commission included only one Indian member, which sparked widespread protests across the country. C. The outcome of the Commission and Round Table Conference was the Government of India Act 1935. D. Government of India Act 1935 introduced dyarchy in the provinces. Which of the statements are incorrect? A, B and D only C and D only A and C only B and D only Correct answer: B and D only. Explanation: Statement B is incorrect because the Simon Commission had zero Indian members (all 7 members were British). Statement D is incorrect because the GoI Act 1935 abolished provincial dyarchy and introduced Provincial Autonomy while proposing dyarchy at the Centre. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 7 / 100 Q7. The National Movement in the princely state of Mysore has been divided under the following periods in a book called "The Political Economy of Indirect Rule, Mysore 1881-1971": i. Mobilization without organization (1885-1920 A.D.) ii. Elite Mobilization (1920-1937 A.D.) iii. Mass Mobilization (1937-1947 A.D.) Who was the author of the Book? C. Hayavadan Rao Bjorn Hettne Mohibbul Hassan Bipin Chandra Correct answer: Bjorn Hettne. Explanation: 'The Political Economy of Indirect Rule: Mysore 1881-1947' is a seminal work authored by Swedish social scientist and historian Björn Hettne. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 8 / 100 Q8. "Nagar revolt was due to the faulty system of renting out large tracts of land to the highest bidder, a practice which led to the great oppression and discontent." The above statement reflects on the nature of Nagar Revolt of 1830-31. To whom this statement belongs? Mark Cubbon Lord Bowring Sreenivasa Murthy & T. Ramakrishnan W.A. Russel Correct answer: Mark Cubbon. Explanation: Sir Mark Cubbon, in his historical administrative assessments of the 1830-31 Nagar peasant insurrection against the Raja's shist and shoukar revenue bidding systems, documented this diagnostic observation. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 9 / 100 Q9. To which sect Ajanta's most of the paintings belong? Mahayana sect of Buddhism Hinayana sect of Buddhism Vajrayana sect of Buddhism Hinayana and Vajrayana sects of Buddhism Correct answer: Mahayana sect of Buddhism. Explanation: The majority of the vibrant rock-cut fresco and mural paintings surviving in Caves 1, 2, 16, and 17 belong to the Mahayana phase of patronage under the Vakataka Dynasty (5th-6th century CE). Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 10 / 100 Q10. Consider the following statements about Rajaram Mohan Roy: A. He wrote Tuhfat-ul-Muwahhidin in Persian. B. He upheld monotheism of Veda. C. He founded Servants of Indian Society. D. He supported the cause of freedom, liberty, democracy and nationalism. Which of the above statements is / are correct? A, B and C only A, B and D only B and C only D only Correct answer: A, B and D only. Explanation: Statements A, B, and D are historically correct. Statement C is incorrect because the Servants of India Society was established by Gopal Krishna Gokhale in Pune in 1905. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 11 / 100 Q11. Who amongst the following women revolutionaries at the age of 15-years Bina Das Suniti Choudhary Shanti Ghosh Pritilata Waddedar Correct answer: Shanti Ghosh. Explanation: As per the official KPSC key, Option 3 (Shanti Ghosh) is designated as the key answer. Shanti Ghosh and Suniti Choudhary together assassinated District Magistrate Stevens at Comilla in December 1931. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 12 / 100 Q12. Which of the following is not related to Article 164 (1A)? I. It was inserted into the constitution through 91st Constitutional Amendment Act. II. According to this Article, the strength of the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15% of the total members of Lok Sabha/State Legislature excluding Prime Minister/Chief Minister. Answer Options: I only Both I and II II only None of the above Correct answer: II only. Explanation: Statement II is incorrect (hence not related/flawed) because Article 164(1A) specifies that the total number of Ministers in a State, including the Chief Minister, shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Legislative Assembly (not excluding the CM, and not referring to Lok Sabha). Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 13 / 100 Q13. Which of the following Articles directs the State to introduce the Scheme and Plans to minimize inequalities in income and to endeavor to eliminate inequalities in status and opportunities not only amongst individuals but also amongst groups of people? I. 38(1) II. 38(2) III. Both 38(1) and 38(2) IV. 39 Answer Options: I only II only I, II and III only IV only Correct answer: I, II and III only. Explanation: As per the official KPSC key, Option 3 is marked. While Article 38(2) explicitly directs minimizing inequalities in income, status, facilities, and opportunities, the key takes the broader mandate across Article 38. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 14 / 100 Q14. Consider the following statements: A. Moyar river flows in borders of Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. B. Palar is a tributary of Cauvery. C. Karanja is a tributary of Manjira and Manjira is a tributary of Godavari River. D. Uttara Pinakini is an interstate river flowing between Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. It originates in Nandi Durga Hill. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: All of the statements are correct Only three statements are correct Only two statements are correct Only one statement is correct Correct answer: Only three statements are correct. Explanation: Statements A, C, and D are correct. Statement B is incorrect because Palar is an independent east-flowing river emptying directly into the Bay of Bengal, not a tributary of the Cauvery. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 15 / 100 Q15. Consider the following statements regards to atmosphere: A. Homosphere consists of Troposphere, Stratosphere and Mesosphere. B. Ozone layer presents in Stratosphere. C. Mesosphere is the coldest portion of atmosphere. D. Heterosphere consists of Thermosphere and Ionosphere. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: Only one statement is correct Only two statements are correct Only three statements are correct All of the above statements are correct Correct answer: All of the above statements are correct. Explanation: Atmospheric composition is classified chemically into the Homosphere (surface up to ~85 km containing troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere) and Heterosphere (above 85 km including thermosphere and exosphere). The mesopause is the coldest region (~ -90°C to -100°C), and the ozone layer resides in the stratosphere. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 16 / 100 Q16. Consider the following countries: A. Finland B. Norway C. Armenia D. Kazakhstan E. North Korea How many of the above countries have a border with Russia? Only two countries Only three countries Only four countries All of the above Correct answer: Only four countries. Explanation: Finland, Norway, Kazakhstan, and North Korea all share land borders with Russia. Armenia does not share a direct land border with Russia (separated by Georgia and Azerbaijan). Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 17 / 100 Q17. How many of the following pairs are correctly matched? River - City A. Tiber - Lisbon B. Danube - Vienna C. Tagus - Rome D. Nile - Cape Town Answer Options: One pair only Two pairs only Three pairs only All pairs Correct answer: One pair only. Explanation: Only Pair B (Danube - Vienna) is correct. Tiber runs through Rome (not Lisbon), Tagus flows through Lisbon (not Rome), and the Nile passes through Cairo and Khartoum (not Cape Town). Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 18 / 100 Q18. Consider the following statements: A. Superposition and Entanglement are key principles of quantum mechanics. B. National Quantum Mission (NQM) will establish four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) to promote innovation in quantum computing, communication, sensing, and materials. Which of the above statement/statements is/are correct? A only B only Both A and B Neither A nor B Correct answer: Both A and B. Explanation: Superposition and entanglement are foundational physics pillars of quantum technologies. Under India's National Quantum Mission (NQM), four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) are set up covering quantum computing, communication, sensing/metrology, and materials/devices. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 19 / 100 Q19. How many of the following statement/statements is/are correct about Bharat Ratna award? A. The recommendations for Bharat Ratna are made by the Prime Minister himself to the President. B. The number of annual awards is restricted to a maximum of three in a particular year. C. Both Nelson Mandela and Mother Teresa are recipients of Bharat Ratna award. D. Only a person with Padma awards can receive the Bharat Ratna. Answer Options: Only one Only two Only three All four Correct answer: Only three. Explanation: Statements A, B, and C are correct (formal regulations restrict regular conferments to 3 per year, recommendations are made directly by the PM, and Mother Teresa [1980] and Nelson Mandela [1990] received it). Statement D is incorrect because having a Padma Award is not a prerequisite. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 20 / 100 Q20. The "Chip 4" or "Fab 4" alliance includes four of the world's top producers of semiconductors. Which of the following countries are part of the "Fab 4" alliance? A. United States of America B. Netherlands C. Australia D. Japan E. South Korea F. Taiwan G. India Answer Options: A, B, C, E B, E, F, G C, D, F, G A, D, E, F Correct answer: A, D, E, F. Explanation: The 'Fab 4' or 'Chip 4' alliance is a semiconductor supply-chain initiative comprising the United States, Japan, South Korea, and Taiwan. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 21 / 100 Q21. Which of the following statements correctly describe the Djibouti Code of Conduct? It aims to regulate the import of any hazardous (including radioactive) waste into Africa. It promotes responsible sourcing of critical minerals. It aims to prevent coups in Africa and ensure people-centered democratic governance. It aims for the repression of piracy and armed robbery against ships in the western Indian Ocean and the Gulf of Aden Correct answer: It aims for the repression of piracy and armed robbery against ships in the western Indian Ocean and the Gulf of Aden. Explanation: The Djibouti Code of Conduct (DCoC) was adopted in 2009 under the auspices of the International Maritime Organization (IMO) to combat piracy, illicit maritime activity, and armed robbery against merchant ships in the Gulf of Aden and Western Indian Ocean. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 22 / 100 Q22. Consider the following statements in relation to World Development Report-2024: A. The middle-income trap refers to a situation where a country experiences stagnation in growth after reaching middle-income status, hindering its transition to high-income status. B. As per the world Bank report, 118 countries were classified as middle-income countries. C. India is one among the countries falling into the middle-income trap. D. World Bank recommended to adopt 3i strategy like investment, infusion and innovation for low-income countries to achieve high-income status. Which of the about statements are correct? A, B and C only A, C and D only A, B and D only All the above Correct answer: A, C and D only. Explanation: As per the official KPSC answer key, Option 2 is correct. Statement B was excluded while Statements A, C, and D were accepted. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 23 / 100 Q23. Which of the following statement/statements are correct? A. The money market falls directly under the regulatory jurisdiction of RBI. B. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is the regulatory authority for the capital market. Answer Options: A only B only Both A and B Neither A nor B Correct answer: Both A and B. Explanation: In the Indian financial system, short-term wholesale money markets fall under the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), while long-term securities and capital markets are regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 24 / 100 Q24. Consider the following statement/statements: A. NITI Aayog in collaboration with United Nations Development Programme (UNDP), and Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI) developed the National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI). B. India's national MPI has 10 indicators while Global MPI has 12 indicators. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct? A only B only Both A and B Neither A nor B Correct answer: A only. Explanation: Statement A is correct. Statement B is incorrect because the reverse is true: the Global MPI uses 10 indicators, whereas India's National MPI by NITI Aayog retains those 10 and adds 2 more (Maternal Health and Bank Accounts), totaling 12 indicators. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 25 / 100 Q25. Launched in 2020, the Reskilling Revolution aims to empower one billion people with better education, skills and economic opportunity by 2030. In this context, the Reskilling Revolution is launched by: International Labour Organization (ILO) World Economic Forum (WEF) United Nation Development Programme (UNDP) United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) Correct answer: World Economic Forum (WEF). Explanation: The 'Reskilling Revolution' initiative was established by the World Economic Forum (WEF) at its annual meeting in Davos in 2020. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 26 / 100 Q26. Consider the following statements: A. Revenue deficit is fiscal deficit minus the interest payments. B. Fiscal deficit is the difference between the government's total expenditure and its total receipts excluding borrowing. C. When a government spends more than it collects by way of revenue, it incurs a budget surplus. How many of the above statement/statements is/are correct? Only one statement Only two statements Only three statements None of the statements Correct answer: Only one statement. Explanation: Statement B is correct (Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure - Total Receipts excluding borrowings). Statement A is incorrect because Primary Deficit equals Fiscal Deficit minus interest payments (Revenue Deficit = Revenue Expenditure - Revenue Receipts). Statement C is incorrect because spending more than revenue creates a deficit, not a surplus. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 27 / 100 Q27. Which of the following features are associated with karst topography? A. Stalactites B. Stalagmites C. Uvalas D. Dolines Choose the correct answer from the options given below: Only one is correct Only two are correct Only three are correct All are correct Correct answer: All are correct. Explanation: Karst topography formed by groundwater dissolution of soluble rocks like limestone includes depositional features (stalactites, stalagmites) and erosional collapse landforms (dolines, uvalas, poljes). Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 28 / 100 Q28. Which of the following Land forms are formed by wind deposition? A. Inselberg B. Zeugen C. Mushroom rock D. Yardangs Choose the correct answer from the options given below: Only two are correct Only three are correct All the above are correct None of the above are correct Correct answer: None of the above are correct. Explanation: Inselbergs, Zeugens, Mushroom rocks (pedestal rocks), and Yardangs are all formed by wind erosion (aeolian erosion/abrasion), not wind deposition (which forms sand dunes, barchans, and loess). Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 29 / 100 Q29. Consider the following statement/statements about Minimum Support Price (MSP): A. Government fixes Minimum Support Prices (MSPs) for all the agricultural crops based on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs & Prices (CACP). B. While recommending MSP, CACP considers 'domestic and international prices' as one of the important factors. C. MSP for Toria and de-husked coconut is fixed based on MSPs of rapeseed & mustard and copra, respectively. Which of the above statement/statements is/are correct? A and B only A and C only B and C only A, B and C Correct answer: B and C only. Explanation: Statement A is incorrect because MSP is announced for 22 mandated crops (plus Fair and Remunerative Price for sugarcane), not all agricultural crops. Statements B and C are correct. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 30 / 100 Q30. Which of the following best describes the Blue Helmet? Climate refugees as a result of floods and cyclones. United Nations military personnel for peacekeeping missions. Traditional fishermen using traditional fishing techniques like cast nets and harpoons. Manual labour and workers who are paid either by the hour or on a piecework basis. Correct answer: United Nations military personnel for peacekeeping missions.. Explanation: UN peacekeepers are globally known as 'Blue Helmets' (or Blue Berets) due to their distinctive light blue headgear worn during peacekeeping deployments. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 31 / 100 Q31. Consider the following statements: A. Cohabitation is a term used in France when the President and Prime Minister come from opposing political camps. B. In the history of the Fifth Republic, there has never been a cohabitation in France. Which of the above statement/statements is/are incorrect? A only B only Both A and B Neither A nor B Correct answer: B only. Explanation: Statement B is incorrect (and therefore the correct option) because France has experienced several periods of cohabitation under the Fifth Republic (e.g., Mitterrand with Chirac, Mitterrand with Balladur, and Chirac with Jospin). Statement A correctly defines the term. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 32 / 100 Q32. How many of the following statement/statements is/are correct? A. The Golan Heights is a disputed area between Turkey and Syria. B. The Abyei border conflict is between Iran and Iraq. C. The Nagorno-Karabakh conflict is between Ukraine and Russia. Answer Options: Only one statement is correct Only two statements are correct Only three statements are correct None of the statements are correct Correct answer: None of the statements are correct. Explanation: Statement A is incorrect (Golan Heights is disputed between Israel and Syria). Statement B is incorrect (Abyei conflict is between Sudan and South Sudan). Statement C is incorrect (Nagorno-Karabakh is between Armenia and Azerbaijan). Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 33 / 100 Q33. Which of the following Digital currencies are correctly matched with the country? Digital Currency - Country A. Sand Dollar - Bahamas B. e-CNY - Nigeria C. SOV - Marshall Islands D. eNaira - China Answer Options: A, B and D A and C B, C and D C and D Correct answer: A and C. Explanation: Sand Dollar is the central bank digital currency (CBDC) of the Bahamas, and SOV is associated with the Marshall Islands. e-CNY belongs to China (not Nigeria) and eNaira belongs to Nigeria (not China). Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 34 / 100 Q34. UK handed over Chagos Archipelago to which one of the following country recently? Seychelles Madagascar Comoros Mauritius Correct answer: Mauritius. Explanation: In October 2024, the United Kingdom agreed to hand over sovereignty of the Chagos Archipelago (including Diego Garcia, under long-term lease terms) to Mauritius. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 35 / 100 Q35. Which of the following languages are conferred classical language status by Union Cabinet? A. Pali B. Prakrit C. Marathi D. Maithili E. Gujarati Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A, B and C only A, B, C and D only A, B, D and E only All of the above Correct answer: A, B and C only. Explanation: In October 2024, the Union Cabinet conferred Classical Language status on five languages: Marathi, Pali, Prakrit, Assamese, and Bengali (Gujarati and Maithili were not included). Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 36 / 100 Q36. Which of the following countries are members of 'NATO Plus'? A. USA B. France C. Israel D. New Zealand E. Australia Choose the correct answer from the options given below: Only two of them Only three of them Only four of them All the above Correct answer: Only three of them. Explanation: As per the official KPSC key, Option 2 (Only three of them) is correct, counting Australia, New Zealand, and Israel among the partners/associated states in the prompt's list. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 37 / 100 Q37. How many of the following countries share a territorial land border with Iran? A. Turkmenistan B. Turkey C. Syria D. Lebanon E. Afghanistan F. Israel G. Azerbaijan Answer Options: Only three Only four Only five Only six Correct answer: Only four. Explanation: Iran shares territorial land borders with 7 countries: Armenia, Azerbaijan, Turkmenistan, Afghanistan, Pakistan, Iraq, and Turkey. From the given list, Turkmenistan, Turkey, Afghanistan, and Azerbaijan (4 countries) share a land border with Iran. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 38 / 100 Q38. Recently the Supreme court upheld the Citizenship Act provisions: I. It upheld section 6A of 1955 Citizenship Act. II. The Supreme Court in its decision upheld citizenship of people who arrived to Assam prior to 1st January 1966 from Bangladesh. III. The section 6A of 1955 Citizenship Act provides an opportunity to become an Indian who arrived to West Bengal prior to 1st January 1966 from Nepal. IV. All of the above Select the correct option: I only II only I and II only IV only Correct answer: I and II only. Explanation: In October 2024, a Constitution Bench upheld Section 6A of the Citizenship Act, 1955 (stemming from the Assam Accord), which recognized migrants entering Assam from Bangladesh prior to January 1, 1966, as citizens. Statement III is completely inapplicable to Section 6A. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 39 / 100 Q39. The impeachment process of President of India I. The charge shall be preferred by either House of Parliament. II. Article 61 of the Constitution deals with the impeachment process. III. The resolution shall be passed by a majority of not less than 2/3 (two-thirds) of the total membership of the House. IV. The nominated members of the Parliament don't have the right to participate in the impeachment process. Which of the above statements regarding the impeachment process of President is/are correct? I only II only I, II, and III only IV only Correct answer: I, II, and III only. Explanation: Statements I, II, and III are correct as per Article 61. Statement IV is incorrect because nominated members of both Houses of Parliament do participate in the impeachment of the President (unlike in Presidential elections). Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 40 / 100 Q40. Which of the following provisions are correct regarding Sixth Schedule of the Constitution? I. The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution provides for the administration of tribal areas. II. Sixth Schedule empowers the state to constitute District and Regional Councils by empowering them to make laws on various areas. III. Under 49th Constitutional Amendment, all the provisions of Sixth Schedule are applicable to Tripura Tribal area. IV. All of the above Answer Options: I only I and II only I, II and III only I, II, III and IV Correct answer: I, II, III and IV. Explanation: The Sixth Schedule governs tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram; establishes Autonomous District and Regional Councils; and was extended to Tripura tribal areas by the 49th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1984. (Note: Official KPSC Key accepts both Option 3 and Option 4). Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 41 / 100 Q41. Consider the following statements: A. In India in FY23, the insurance penetration of the non-life insurance sector is more than the life insurance sector. B. 100% FDI permitted for insurance intermediaries under automatic route. Which of the following statement/statements is are correct? A only B only Both A and B Neither A nor B Correct answer: B only. Explanation: Statement A is incorrect because in India, life insurance penetration (~3%) is significantly higher than non-life insurance (~1%). Statement B is correct as 100% FDI is allowed for insurance intermediaries under the automatic approval route. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 42 / 100 Q42. What is the name of the scheme launched to fund infrastructure and social development projects in the North-East region for a period of four years from 2022-2023 to 2025-2026? I. PM-NERLP II. PM-DRDU III. PM-FME IV. PM-DevINE Answer Options: I only II only III only IV only Correct answer: IV only. Explanation: PM-DevINE (Prime Minister’s Development Initiative for North-East Region) was launched with an outlay of Rs 6,600 crore for the 4-year period from 2022-23 to 2025-26. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 43 / 100 Q43. Consider the following statements: A. The Lok Sabha cannot override the Rajya Sabha by passing the bill for the second time and vice versa. B. The Legislative Assembly can override the Legislative Council by passing the bill for the second time and not vice versa. C. The Constitution provides the mechanism of joint sitting of two houses of the Parliament to resolve a deadlock between them over the passage of a bill. D. The Constitution does not provide the mechanism of joint sitting of two houses of the Parliament to resolve a deadlock between them over the passage of a bill. Which of the statements given above are correct? A and D only B and C only A, B and C only B and D only Correct answer: A, B and C only. Explanation: Under Article 108, Parliament has joint sittings to resolve deadlocks, and Lok Sabha cannot unilaterally override Rajya Sabha by passing an ordinary bill a second time. At the state level (Articles 197-198), there is no joint sitting; the Legislative Assembly can override the Council by passing the bill a second time. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 44 / 100 Q44. Which of the following statements is/are correct? A. Legislative Council is a permanent house. B. Legislative Assembly is dissolved after the term of 5 years from the date of its first meeting. C. Legislative Assembly is dissolved when the ruling party loses the majority. Answer Options: A and B only C only B and C only A, B and C Correct answer: A and B only. Explanation: As per the official KPSC answer key, Option 1 is correct. The Legislative Council is a permanent body and the Assembly has a normal 5-year tenure. Losing a majority does not immediately dissolve the house automatically until the Governor formally proclaims dissolution. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 45 / 100 Q45. A bill lapses when A. It is pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by Lok Sabha. B. It is originated and passed by Rajya Sabha but pending in Lok Sabha. C. It is originated in the Lok Sabha but pending in the Lok Sabha. D. It is originated and passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in Rajya Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A only A, C and D only B, C and D only A, B, C and D only Correct answer: B, C and D only. Explanation: On the dissolution of Lok Sabha: A bill originated/passed by Rajya Sabha but pending in Lok Sabha lapses; a bill originated and pending in Lok Sabha lapses; a bill passed by Lok Sabha and pending in Rajya Sabha lapses. A bill pending in Rajya Sabha but not passed by Lok Sabha does NOT lapse. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 46 / 100 Q46. Match the older names of Andaman and Nicobar Islands with the newer ones. Old Names - New Names I. Ross Island - A. Sri Vijaya Puram II. Neil Island - B. Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose Island III. Havelock Island - C. Swaraj Island IV. Port Blair - D. Shaheed Island Answer Options: I-D, II-A, III-C, IV-B I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A I-B, II-C, III-A, IV-C I-B, II-D, III-C, IV-A Correct answer: I-B, II-D, III-C, IV-A. Explanation: Ross Island was renamed Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose Island; Neil Island became Shaheed Island; Havelock Island became Swaraj Island; Port Blair was renamed Sri Vijaya Puram in 2024. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 47 / 100 Q47. Consider the following statements about Gi-Fi (Gigabite Fidelity) technology A. Gi-Fi is a wired communication technology which uses optical fibers to transmit the data. B. Gi-Fi can transfer data for very long distances i.e. 100 kms Which of the above statement/statements is/are correct? A only B only Both A and B Neither A nor B Correct answer: Neither A nor B. Explanation: Gi-Fi is a wireless (not wired) communication transceiver technology operating on the 60 GHz frequency band, designed for short-range high-speed data transmission (typically up to 10 meters, not 100 km). Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 48 / 100 Q48. The terms Snowblind Supercomputer Malware Cryptocurrency Drone attack Correct answer: Malware. Explanation: Snowblind (Android Trojan), Mirai (IoT botnet), Stuxnet (industrial cyberweapon worm), and Ryuk (ransomware) are all well-known categories of malicious software (malware). Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 49 / 100 Q49. Consider the following statements: A. India has won a total eight (8) gold medals in the Men Field Hockey Summer Olympics (including the British rule). B. India has never won the FIH Hockey World Cup C. The Indian Women Hockey team clinched the Women's Junior Asia Cup 2023 title for the first time. How many statement/statements is/are correct? Only one statement Only two statements All the statements None of the statements Correct answer: Only two statements. Explanation: Statements A and C are correct (India won 8 Olympic golds in men's hockey; Indian Women won the Junior Asia Cup 2023 in Kakamigahara). Statement B is incorrect because India won the FIH Men's Hockey World Cup in 1975 in Kuala Lumpur. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 50 / 100 Q50. Consider the following statements in relation to criteria used in horizontal tax devolution by the Finance Commissions (FC) of India. A. Tax efforts was introduced during the Tenth Finance Commission. B. The overall weightage given to need-based parameters in the 15th Finance Commission was less than that of the 14th Finance Commission. C. Forest cover comes under fiscal disability principle. D. Over the years, there has been a shift from need-based parameters to equity and efficiency based parameters. Which of the above statements are correct? A and B only A, C and D only B and C only A, B and C only Correct answer: A, C and D only. Explanation: As per the official KPSC answer key, Option 2 is accepted, endorsing statements A, C, and D. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 51 / 100 Q51. Consider the following statements related to the effects of deficit financing: A. Deficit financing, decreases real wage rate in the economy. B. It causes current account surplus. C. It leads to appreciation of domestic currency. D. It creates deflationary situation in the economy. Which of the statements given above are correct? A only B and C only A, C and D only B, C and D only Correct answer: A only. Explanation: Deficit financing expands money supply and tends to cause inflation. Inflation erodes purchasing power, which lowers real wage rates in the short term. It leads to inflationary (not deflationary) pressures and tends to depreciate (not appreciate) the currency while worsening the current account deficit. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 52 / 100 Q52. Consider the different types of goods and related examples given in List-I and List-II respectively. List-I - List-II A. Pure public goods - Street light, public sanitation B. Mixed goods (Quasi Public) - Food, Clothing, Automobiles C. Pure private goods - Elementary education, primary healthcare D. Merit goods - Toll road, Parks (Private Parks) How many of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? Only one Only two Only three None of the above Correct answer: Only one. Explanation: As per the official KPSC answer key, Option 1 (Only one) is the accepted answer (Pair A: Pure public goods - street light, public sanitation). Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 53 / 100 Q53. Consider the following statements: A. During the period from 2016-17 to 2023-24, India's agricultural product exports reached its peak in the year 2022-23. B. India has established 13 Agri-cells in foreign countries to promote export of its agricultural products. C. Uttar Pradesh, Punjab & Maharashtra are the leading agricultural states in India. D. Five products such as basmati rice, non basmati rice, sugar, spices and oil meal account for more than 50 percent of India's total agriculture exports. How many of the following statements given above are correct? Only one Only two Only three All four Correct answer: All four. Explanation: India's agri-exports reached an all-time peak of ~$53 billion in 2022-23. The Department of Commerce created 13 dedicated Agri-cells in major destination missions, and UP, Punjab, and Maharashtra are top producers, with those five commodities driving over half of all agri-export receipts. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 54 / 100 Q54. To travel from Karnataka to Mizoram by walking Three Four Five Six Correct answer: Four. Explanation: The shortest contiguous route from Karnataka to Mizoram passes through: Andhra Pradesh -> Odisha -> West Bengal -> Assam (entering Mizoram directly from southern Assam). This results in a minimum of 4 intermediate states. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 55 / 100 Q55. Consider the following statement/statements about ocean currents: A. Cold currents are usually found on the west coast of the continents in the low and middle latitudes (true in both hemispheres) and on the east coast in the higher latitudes in the Northern Hemisphere. B. Coriolis force influences only wind system and has no role in influencing ocean currents. C. Benguela current is a cold current in the west coast of South America. D. The mixing of warm and cold currents help to replenish the oxygen and favour the growth of planktons, the primary food for fish population. How many of the following statement/statements is/are correct? Only one statement is correct Only two statements are correct Only three statements are correct None of the statements are correct Correct answer: Only two statements are correct. Explanation: Statements A and D are correct. Statement B is incorrect because Coriolis force directly dictates ocean gyres and current direction. Statement C is incorrect because the Benguela current flows along the southwest coast of Africa, not South America (which has the Humboldt/Peru current). Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 56 / 100 Q56. Which of the following statement/statements are correct about the Polar Vortex? A. The Polar Vortex is a large area of low pressure and cold air over Earth's North and South Poles. B. Polar Vortex is associated with the Jet Stream. C. A weak Polar Vortex allows the cold Arctic air to move southward. Answer Options: A and B only B and C only A and C only A, B and C Correct answer: A, B and C. Explanation: The Polar Vortex is an expansive persistent low-pressure system situated over the poles. It is closely tied to the polar front jet stream. When it weakens or wobbles, the jet stream buckles, allowing frigid Arctic air to surge southward into mid-latitudes. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 57 / 100 Q57. Which option correctly defines the following? When two hurricanes spinning in the same direction pass close enough to each other Kessler syndrome Fujuwhara Effect Medicanes El Nino Southern Oscillation (ENSO) Correct answer: Fujuwhara Effect. Explanation: Named after Japanese meteorologist Sakuhei Fujiwhara, this phenomenon describes the binary interaction and mutual cyclonic orbiting/merger between two nearby tropical vortices. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 58 / 100 Q58. Consider the following statement/statements: A. The actual area irrigated by the tanks in Karnataka have shown a consistently increasing trend since 1991. B. Irrigated area in the Karnataka state constitutes only 2.5% of the net sown area. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct? A only B only Both A and B Neither A nor B Correct answer: Neither A nor B. Explanation: Tank irrigation in Karnataka has declined substantially over the decades due to siltation and borewell reliance. Furthermore, net irrigated area in Karnataka accounts for over 30% of net sown area, far exceeding 2.5%. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 59 / 100 Q59. The Town Administrations during the period of Satavahanas was in the hands of? Nigama Sabha Agama Sabha Samithi Vidhatha Correct answer: Nigama Sabha. Explanation: In the Satavahana administrative structure, urban centres and market towns (nigamas) were administered by citizen assemblies and merchant bodies known as Nigama Sabhas. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 60 / 100 Q60. During the period of Cholas Alumganam Nanadesi Cittirameli Ainnurruvar Correct answer: Cittirameli. Explanation: Under the Cholas, the Cittirameli (or Chitrameli Periyanadu) was an influential guild/assembly formed by dominant agricultural landowners to regulate agrarian practices, land rights, and irrigation networks. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 61 / 100 Q61. In which Buddhist Council were the two groups Buddhist i.e. the Mahayana and Hinayana recognized? First Buddhist Council Second Buddhist Council Third Buddhist Council Fourth Buddhist Council Correct answer: Fourth Buddhist Council. Explanation: The Fourth Buddhist Council, convened during the reign of Kushan Emperor Kanishka at Kundalvana in Kashmir, formalized the theological division of Buddhism into Mahayana and Hinayana. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 62 / 100 Q62. Consider the following statements regarding Ashoka's inscription: 1. The rock edict 3 refers to officers going on tour every five years to instruct people in dhamma. 2. Rummindei inscription mentions that the village of Lumbini will get Tax concession. 3. Rock edict 11 refers to the gift of dhamma being the best of all gifts. Select the correct answer from the options given below: 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only All of the above Correct answer: All of the above. Explanation: Major Rock Edict III orders Yuktas, Rajukas, and Pradesikas to tour every 5 years. The Rummindei Pillar Inscription documents Ashoka waiving religious taxes (bali) and reducing land revenue (bhaga) to 1/8th at Buddha's birthplace. Major Rock Edict XI extols the gift of Dhamma. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 63 / 100 Q63. Recently It provides holistic and end-to-end support to artisans and craftspeople. It aims to reduce the pending income-tax litigations. It aims for repatriation of antiquities to India. It is a Blockchain Technology Stack. Correct answer: It is a Blockchain Technology Stack.. Explanation: In September 2024, the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) launched 'Vishvasya-Baas' (Blockchain-as-a-Service) stack to offer secure distributed application services for e-governance. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 64 / 100 Q64. Consider the following statements: A. The European Free Trade Association (EFTA) is the intergovernmental organisation of Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway and Switzerland. B. India and EFTA have signed a Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA). Which of the above statement/statements is/are correct? A only B only Both A and B Neither A nor B Correct answer: Both A and B. Explanation: EFTA comprises Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway, and Switzerland. In March 2024, India signed the landmark Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) with EFTA, involving a $100 billion investment commitment over 15 years. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 65 / 100 Q65. Which of the following statement/statements are correct about Electronic Voting Machine (EVM) and Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT)? A. EVMs were used for the first time in 1982. B. EVM and VVPAT do not require any external power supply. C. The EVM can not be used in simultaneous elections. D. VVPAT was introduced by the ECI in compliance to the pronouncement of the Supreme Court in Lily Thomas case (2013). Answer Options: A and C only B and D only A and B only C and D only Correct answer: A and B only. Explanation: EVMs were first piloted in 1982 in the Paravur constituency of Kerala, and units run entirely on standalone battery power packs without external electrical connections. VVPAT directives arose from the Subramanian Swamy v. ECI (2013) ruling, not Lily Thomas. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 66 / 100 Q66. The Doha process Peaceful and prosperous Afghanistan WTO agreements and declarations that address compulsory licensing Ethical use of Artificial Intelligence Climate change negotiations Correct answer: Peaceful and prosperous Afghanistan. Explanation: The Doha talks, Heart of Asia-Istanbul Process, and Moscow Format represent diplomatic and multilateral consultative platforms geared toward security, reconciliation, and peace in Afghanistan. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 67 / 100 Q67. Consider the 3 lists come under the Constitution of India and the related subjects given in List-I and List-II respectively. List-I - List-II A. Union list - Economic and social planning B. State list - Inter-state trade and commerce C. Concurrent list - Audit of the accounts of the Union and of the states How many of the given pairs above is/are correctly matched? Only one Only two Only three None of the above Correct answer: None of the above. Explanation: All 3 pairs are mismatched. Economic and social planning is on the Concurrent List (Entry 20). Inter-state trade and commerce is on the Union List (Entry 42). Audit of accounts of Union and States is also on the Union List (Entry 76). Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 68 / 100 Q68. Consider the following statements: A. The coexistence of budget deficit and trade deficit is the problem of Twin deficit. B. The coexistence of fiscal deficit and current account deficit is the problem of Twin deficit. C. The coexistence of revenue deficit and primary deficit is the problem of Twin deficit. Which of the statement/statements given above is/are correct? A and B only B and C only B only A only Correct answer: B only. Explanation: As per the official KPSC answer key, Option 3 (B only) is accepted. In formal macroeconomic literature, the classic 'Twin Deficit' specifically refers to the simultaneous existence of Fiscal Deficit and Current Account Deficit. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 69 / 100 Q69. Consider the following (markets) related to Indian money markets: A. Repurchase auctions. B. Treasury bills market. C. Discount and finance house of India. D. Satellite Dealers. How many of the above is/are considered as money markets? A, B and D only B, C and D only A, B and C only All the above Correct answer: All the above. Explanation: In the Indian financial architecture, Repo/Reverse repo auctions, T-Bill issuances, the Discount and Finance House of India (DFHI, setup to impart liquidity), and Primary/Satellite Dealers together form institutional components of the organized short-term money market. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 70 / 100 Q70. Consider the following statements related to GDP Deflator: A. GDP deflator is a measure of rate of inflation in the economy. B. It is the ratio of GDP at current prices to GDP at constant prices. C. Nominal GDP is equal to real GDP in the base year. D. The GDP deflator is used to convert nominal variables into real variables. Which of the statements given above are correct? A and B only B and C only C and D only All the above Correct answer: All the above. Explanation: The GDP deflator reflects price changes of all domestically produced final goods and services, defined as (Nominal GDP / Real GDP) * 100. In the base year, nominal equals real GDP, and it serves as a comprehensive deflator across macroeconomic aggregates. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 71 / 100 Q71. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: In India's federal finance system, cess and surcharges are not shared between the central and state governments. Statement-II: Articles 270 and 271 of the Indian Constitution exclude cesses levied for specific purposes and surcharges from the divisible pool of taxes. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. Correct answer: Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I. Explanation: Under Articles 270 and 271, the proceeds of cesses levied for specific purposes and surcharges flow entirely to the Consolidated Fund of India and do not form part of the divisible tax pool shared with the states. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 72 / 100 Q72. Consider the following statements in relation to 'Mission Shakti' scheme: A. It is an Umbrella scheme for safety, security and empowerment of women. B. Sambal and Samarthya are the 2 sub-schemes of Mission Shakti. C. The existing schemes, such as Ujjwala, Swadhar Greh, Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana have been merged under Samarthya scheme. D. The existing schemes, including women helpline, Beti Bachao Beti Padhao have been merged under Sambal scheme. Which of the above statements are correct? A, B and C only A, B and D only A and B only All the above Correct answer: All the above. Explanation: Mission Shakti is the Ministry of Women and Child Development's umbrella scheme. 'Sambal' caters to safety/security (One Stop Centres, WHL, BBBP), while 'Samarthya' focuses on empowerment (Ujjawala, Swadhar Greh, PMMVY, Working Women Hostels). Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 73 / 100 Q73. 'Darien Gap' was in news recently, which is located in: A. Panama B. Colombia C. Venezuela D. Ecuador Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A and B B and C C and D D and A Correct answer: A and B. Explanation: The Darien Gap is a dense, roadless jungle and swamp tract situated along the border connecting North/Central America (Panama) and South America (Colombia). Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 74 / 100 Q74. How many of the following statement/statements is/are correct about the Small Modular Reactors? A. Small modular reactors (SMRs) are advanced nuclear reactors that have a power capacity of up to 300 MW(e) per unit. B. SMRs could not be paired with the renewable sources in a hybrid energy system. C. In Budget 2024-25, Government of India announced that setting up Bharat Modular Reactors is restricted to the government sector only and no private sector will be allowed. Options: Only one statement is correct Only two statements are correct Only three statements are correct None of the statements are correct Correct answer: Only one statement is correct. Explanation: Statement A is correct (IAEA defines SMRs as reactors with capacity up to 300 MW(e) per unit). Statement B is false because SMRs excel in load-following and hybrid renewable pairing. Statement C is false because Budget 2024-25 specifically announced partnering with the private sector for R&D and setting up Bharat Small Reactors. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 75 / 100 Q75. Space Variable Objects Monitor (SVOM) satellite developed jointly by: China and North Korea Russia and Iran Israel and USA France and China Correct answer: France and China. Explanation: Launched in June 2024, the Space-based multi-band astronomical Variable Objects Monitor (SVOM) is a joint mission developed by the French Space Agency (CNES) and the China National Space Administration (CNSA) to detect and study Gamma-Ray Bursts. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 76 / 100 Q76. Consider the following countries: A. Egypt B. Israel C. Jordan D. Saudi Arabia How many of the above countries have a border with Gulf of Aqaba (Aqubah)? Only one country Only two countries Only three countries All the four countries Correct answer: All the four countries. Explanation: The Gulf of Aqaba is bordered by four littoral nations at the northeastern tip of the Red Sea: Egypt (Sinai Peninsula), Israel (Eilat), Jordan (Aqaba), and Saudi Arabia. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 77 / 100 Q77. Which of the Indian cities are included in UNESCO Creative Cities Network? A. Gwalior - music B. Kozhikode - literature C. Chennai - music D. Varanasi - literature Choose the correct answer from the options given below: Only A and C are correct Only A and B are correct Only C and D are correct Only B and D are correct Correct answer: Only A and B are correct. Explanation: On World Cities Day 2023, UNESCO added Gwalior for 'Music' and Kozhikode for 'Literature'. While Chennai was designated for Music in 2017, Varanasi was designated for Music (not Literature) in 2015. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 78 / 100 Q78. Consider the following with reference to PM E-DRIVE: A. e-two-wheeler B. e-ambulance C. e-trucks D. e-buses Which of the above categories are eligible under the above scheme? Only one of the above Only two of the above Only three of the above All of the above Correct answer: All of the above. Explanation: Approved in September 2024 with a financial outlay of Rs 10,900 crore, the PM E-DRIVE scheme provides subsidies and demand incentives for electric two-wheelers, electric three-wheelers, e-ambulances, e-trucks, and e-buses. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 79 / 100 Q79. Consider the following statements with reference to Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) A. Establishment under separate Act of the Parliament. B. Work under the Ministry of Finance under Government of India. C. It investigates the matters on the request of any department of Central Government and State Government. D. The headquarter of SFIO is in New Delhi with five regional offices. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: Only one is correct Only two are correct Only three are correct All are correct Correct answer: Only two are correct. Explanation: As per the official KPSC answer key, Option 2 is accepted. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 80 / 100 Q80. Consider the following places which are having operational Registered Vehicle Scrapping Facility (RVSP) in Karnataka. A. Vijayapura, Bengaluru Rural district B. Koratagere, Tumkur district C. Narasapura, Kolar district D. Mummigatti, Dharwad district Choose the correct answer from the options given below: Only one is correct Only two are correct Only three are correct All are correct Correct answer: Only two are correct. Explanation: Under the Registered Vehicle Scrapping Facility (RVSF) framework established by MoRTH and the Karnataka State Transport Department, two of the listed authorized scrapping centres are operational. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 81 / 100 Q81. 4B (Four Nos) movement was in news recently South Africa South Korea Canada USA Correct answer: South Korea. Explanation: The 4B feminist movement originated in South Korea around 2019, advocating the four 'Nos': bi-hon (no marriage), bi-chulsan (no childbirth), bi-yeonae (no dating men), and bi-sekseu (no sexual relations with men). Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 82 / 100 Q82. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect? A. The Gaganyaan Programme envisages undertaking human spaceflight to Geostationary orbit at an altitude of approximately 22,300 miles or 35,800 kilometers directly above the equator. B. ISRO conducted Drogue Parachute Deployment Tests for Gaganyaan Mission. C. SSLV rocket is identified as the launch vehicle for Gaganyaan mission. Answer Options: A only A and C only B only B and C only Correct answer: A and C only. Explanation: Statements A and C are incorrect (and thus the correct response). Gaganyaan targets Low Earth Orbit (LEO) at ~400 km altitude (not Geostationary orbit at 35,800 km). The designated human-rated launch vehicle is the LVM3 (GSLV Mk-III), not SSLV. Statement B is correct. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 83 / 100 Q83. Consider the following statement/statements about All India Quarterly Establishment based Employment Survey (AQEES) A. The AQEES has been taken up by the Labour Bureau. B. It provides quarterly estimates about the employment and related variables of establishments in both organized and unorganized segments. Which of the above statement/statements is/are incorrect? A Only B Only Both A and B Neither A nor B Correct answer: Neither A nor B. Explanation: Both statements are factually correct. AQEES is released by the Labour Bureau under the Ministry of Labour and Employment, covering both organized segments (establishments with 10 or more workers via QES) and unorganized segments (1 to 9 workers via AUES); hence, neither statement is incorrect. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 84 / 100 Q84. How many of the following statements is/are incorrect? A. The yield of a bond is inversely related to its price. B. Liquidity Adjustment Facility is an important monetary policy tool of RBI. C. Treasury bills of T-bills are capital market instruments which are long term debt instruments issued by the Government of India. Answer Options: Only one statement Only two statements Only three statements None of the statements Correct answer: Only one statement. Explanation: Only Statement C is incorrect. Treasury bills are short-term money market instruments with tenures up to 364 days, not long-term capital market debt instruments. Statements A and B are correct. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 85 / 100 Q85. Which of the following is correct regarding the 'Pocket Veto Power of the President of India' in comparison to American President? I. Unlike American President, the President of India can keep the pending bill for an indefinite period. II. Unlike American President the President of India neither rejects the bill nor returns the bill for reconsideration. III. Unlike the American Constitution, the Constitution of India does not give any time limit to the President upon the bill. IV. Unlike the American President who has to resend the bill within 10 days, Indian President has no such time bound. Answer options: I and IV only II and III only I, II and IV only I, II, III and IV Correct answer: I, II, III and IV. Explanation: Under the US Constitution, the President must act on a bill within 10 days (excluding Sundays). Under Article 111 of the Indian Constitution, no time limit is prescribed, allowing the Indian President to take no action indefinitely (the pocket veto). Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 86 / 100 Q86. Consider the following statements about Vibrant Villages Programme: A. Vibrant Villages Programme (VVP) is a Central Sector Scheme. B. It aims for comprehensive development of villages of blocks on the northern border thus improving the quality of life of people living in identified border villages. C. Vibrant Village Action Plans will be created by the district administration with the help of Gram Panchayats. How many of the above statement/statements is/are correct? Only one statement is correct Only two statements are correct Only three statements are correct None of the statements are correct Correct answer: Only two statements are correct. Explanation: As per the official KPSC answer key, Option 2 is marked as correct. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 87 / 100 Q87. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect? A. Deakin's new university campus is located at GIFT City. B. IIT Madras established its international campus in Tanzania's Zanzibar. Answer Options: A only B only Both A and B Neither A nor B Correct answer: Neither A nor B. Explanation: Both statements are correct. Deakin University of Australia opened an international branch campus at GIFT City, Gujarat, and IIT Madras launched its first offshore international campus in Zanzibar, Tanzania. Hence, neither is incorrect. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 88 / 100 Q88. How many of the following Indian government schemes are directly associated with India's biofuel programme? A. GOBARdhan yojana B. PM-JIVAN yojana C. PM-JANMAN yojana D. MISHTI scheme E. SATAT scheme Answer Options: Only one Only two Only three Only four Correct answer: Only three. Explanation: GOBARdhan (biogas/CBG), PM-JIVAN (Second Generation ethanol), and SATAT (Sustainable Alternative Towards Affordable Transportation for CBG) directly promote biofuels. PM-JANMAN caters to PVTGs and MISHTI focuses on mangrove conservation. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 89 / 100 Q89. Consider the following statements: A. Moidams the Mound-Burial System of the Ahom Dynasty is a UNESCO World Heritage Site. B. Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas is a UNESCO World Heritage Site. C. Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodh Gaya is yet to be declared as UNESCO World Heritage Site. Which of the above statement/statements is/are correct? A and B only B and C only A and C only A, B and C Correct answer: A and B only. Explanation: Moidams was inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2024, and Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas was inscribed in 2023. Statement C is incorrect because Mahabodhi Temple Complex was inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2002. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 90 / 100 Q90. Which of the following best describes the Bletchley Declaration? It is a declaration on countering the use of new and emerging technologies for terrorist purposes. It is a declaration focused on limiting the use of nuclear weapons and promoting disarmament among member states. It is a declaration aimed at boosting global efforts to cooperate on artificial intelligence (AI) safety. It is a declaration which reaffirmed that member states of the WTO'S TRIPS Agreement can take measures to protect public health. Correct answer: It is a declaration aimed at boosting global efforts to cooperate on artificial intelligence (AI) safety.. Explanation: Signed in November 2023 at Bletchley Park, UK, during the AI Safety Summit, the declaration represents global consensus among 28 nations (including India, US, and China) on mitigating catastrophic risks of frontier AI models. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 91 / 100 Q91. Match the following One District One Product (ODOP) with the respective districts: I. Fig based products - A. Bidar II. Ginger based products - B. Kodagu III. Turmeric - C. Chamarajanagar IV. Coffee - D. Bellary Answer Options: I-D, II-A, III-C, IV-B I-A, II-D, III-C, IV-B I-C, II-A, III-B, IV-D I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C Correct answer: I-D, II-A, III-C, IV-B. Explanation: Under Karnataka's ODOP under PM-FME: Fig-based products are mapped to Bellary, Ginger-based products to Bidar, Turmeric to Chamarajanagar, and Coffee to Kodagu. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 92 / 100 Q92. Consider the following statements: A. The 2024 Paralympic Games was held in Tokyo, Japan. B. India achieved their most successful performance in Paralympic history at the 2024 Paralympic Games, securing a total of 29 medals. C. Indian para-athletes participated in three new sports in 2024 - para cricket, para rowing and blind football. D. Javelin ace Sumit Antil made history as the first Indian man to defend his title at the Paralympics. Which of the above statement/statements is/are correct? A and B only A and C only B and D only C and D only Correct answer: B and D only. Explanation: Statements B and D are correct (India won 29 medals at Paris 2024, and Sumit Antil defended his F64 javelin title with Paralympic records). Statement A is incorrect because the 2024 Paralympics were held in Paris, France. Statement C is incorrect because para cricket is not a Paralympic sport. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 93 / 100 Q93. Match the following: Volcanic Landform - Description A. Sills - a. Wall-like structure perpendicular to the ground B. Dykes - b. Thick horizontal deposits C. Lacolith - c. Dome-like structure covering vast area D. Batholith - d. Level base connected by a pipe like conduct from below Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A-b, B-a, C-d, D-c A-b, B-c, C-d, D-a A-c, B-d, C-a, D-b A-a, B-b, C-c, D-d Correct answer: A-b, B-a, C-d, D-c. Explanation: Sills are concordant horizontal intrusive sheets (b); Dykes are discordant vertical wall-like intrusions perpendicular to strata (a); Laccoliths are mushroom-shaped dome intrusions with a level base fed by a conduit (d); Batholiths are granitic intrusions forming massive dome-like bases (c). Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 94 / 100 Q94. Which of the following protected areas of Karnataka is having highest area in terms of sq. kms? Cauvery Wildlife Sanctuary Bandipur Tiger Reserve Kali Tiger Reserve Sharavathi Valley Lion Tailed Macaque Sanctuary Correct answer: Kali Tiger Reserve. Explanation: As per the official KPSC answer key, Option 3 (Kali Tiger Reserve) is accepted as having the highest protected forest expanse among the given options (~1300+ sq km including its wildlife sanctuary/buffer network). Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 95 / 100 Q95. Which of the following waterbodies of Karnataka are included in the Ramsar sites recently i.e. 2024? A. Magadi Kere Conservations Reserve B. Ankasumudra Bird Conservation Reserve C. Bonal Bird Conservation Reserve D. Kokkarebellur Community Reserve E. Aghanasini Estuary Choose the correct answer from the options given below: A, B and C only A, B and D only A, B and E only C, D and E only Correct answer: A, B and E only. Explanation: In early 2024, Karnataka added three new Ramsar wetlands of international importance: Ankasamudra Bird Conservation Reserve, Aghanashini Estuary, and Magadi Kere Conservation Reserve. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 96 / 100 Q96. Which of the following countries share border with Israel? A. Lebanon B. Syria C. Jordan D. Saudi Arabia E. Egypt F. Iran Choose the correct answer from the options given below: All of them Only 5 of them Only 4 of them Only 3 of them Correct answer: Only 4 of them. Explanation: Israel shares land borders with four sovereign states: Lebanon to the north, Syria to the northeast, Jordan to the east, and Egypt to the southwest. It does not share land borders with Saudi Arabia or Iran. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 97 / 100 Q97. Consider the following statements: A. The power of Judicial Review in India is enjoyed by the Supreme Court as well as the High Court. B. Any person aggrieved by a ruling can file a Review Petition within 30 days of the court verdict. C. Review Petitions are heard in open court as the lawyers make their arguments through either oral arguments or written submissions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A and B only C only B and C only A, B and C only Correct answer: A and B only. Explanation: Statements A and B are correct (Article 137 review petitions must be filed within 30 days). Statement C is incorrect because review petitions are routinely disposed of by circulation in judges' chambers without open court oral arguments, unless specifically allowed by the bench. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 98 / 100 Q98. Consider the following statements: A. 'Prorogation' postpones a joint sitting of the house by an order made by the Governor. B. 'Adjournment' terminates both the sitting and session of the house. C. 'Recess' is the time between the prorogation and reassembly of the houses. D. The Governor can also prorogue the house in session. Which of the statements given above are correct? A and B only A and C only B and C only C and D only Correct answer: C and D only. Explanation: Prorogation terminates a legislative session (done by Governor under Article 174), while Adjournment merely suspends a sitting for hours/days (done by Speaker). The period between prorogation and reassembly is the recess. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 99 / 100 Q99. Consider the following statements: A. India attended the 16th BRICS Summit in Kazan, Russia. B. Asian Development Bank (ADB) is a multilateral development bank established by BRICS countries. C. India has never chaired the BRICS Summit. D. USA was incorporated as a new member during the Kazan Summit. How many of the above statement/statements is/are correct? Only one statement is correct Only two statements are correct Only three statements are correct None of the statements are correct Correct answer: Only one statement is correct. Explanation: Statement A is correct (the 16th BRICS Summit was held in Kazan, Russia, in October 2024, attended by PM Modi). Statement B is incorrect (BRICS established the New Development Bank, not ADB). Statement C is incorrect (India chaired BRICS summits in 2012, 2016, and 2021). Statement D is false. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. 100 / 100 Q100. Which of the following countries conferred its highest civilian honour 'GRAND ORDER OF THE CHAIN OF THE YELLOW STAR' on President of India Vietnam Australia Suriname Venezuela Correct answer: Suriname. Explanation: In June 2023, President Droupadi Murmu was conferred the 'Grand Order of the Chain of the Yellow Star', the highest civilian honour of Suriname, by President Chandrikapersad Santokhi in Paramaribo. Key takeaway: Use the specific facts, chronology, definitions, or distinctions stated in the question to eliminate the alternatives and identify the correct option. Your score isChallenge Your Study Group & Share Your Score: Help your peers prepare for KPSC KAS Prelims. 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